ISTQB CTAL(Test manager) Sample Question

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of Software Testing

Q. 1: System test closure activities occur;

I. After system exit criteria are met.
II. After acceptance testing is over.
III. After all project activities are finished.
IV. After the execution of all test cases.

A. I, II and IV are true
B. II and IV are true
C. I, II, III are true
D. All of them are true

 

Q. 2: Select the correct statement;

A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements engineering, software development, etc.

B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.

C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.

D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software development lifecycle model.

 

Q. 3: Which of the following statements are false?

I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test execution ends when exit criteria are met.

II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model

III. Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools.

IV. Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.

A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, Ill are false
D. None of them are false

 

Q. 4: Which of the following statements are true?

I. Early test planning and later test execution is an activity of sequential software development model

II. Change and configuration management are not needed for software testing activities.

III. Based on the project context, additional levels of testing like hardware-software integration testing, feature interaction testing can be done.

IV. System test planning and project planning could occur concurrently in V-model.

A. I, II and III are true.
B. II, III and IV are true.
C. I, Ill and IV are true.
D. I and Ill are true.

 

Q. 5: According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;

I. contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.

II. include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the entire system from scratch.

III. can be less reliable than individual systems

IV. characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression tests at systems of systems level.

A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, Ill, and IV are true. II is false.
D. II, III and IV are true. I is false.

 

Q. 6: According to ISTQB syllabus, characteristics of systems of systems are;

I. Long duration of projects
II. Multiple levels of integration
III. Need for Maintenance Testing
IV. No formal development lifecycle or milestones.

A. I, II true, Ill and IV false.
B. I, II, Ill true, IV false.
C. II, III IV true, I false.
D. All of the above are true.

 

Q. 7: Which of the following is true about safety critical systems?

A. System failures could be life threatening.

B. The supplier of the safety critical system is not liable for any damage caused by the system.

C. Testing proves that there are no failures or defects in the system.

D. Traceability to regulatory requirements and compliance is not necessary.

 

Q. 8: A Company hired a new Test Manager to manage their testing department for an upcoming new project. Test manager spent his first two weeks identifying the testing environment and testing process. He found that the test environment and production has redundant architecture, depth and breadth of documentation, rigorous approach for development and testing, and compliance to regulatory requirements. The testing department is also audited 3 times a year by internal and external auditors.

Select the correct answer;

A. Test Manager is describing systems of systems environment.

B. Test Manager is describing a safety critical system environment.

C. Test Manager is describing his job duties.

D. Test Manager is describing a multiple clients and server architecture.

 

Q. 9: Select the correct statements about safety critical systems;

I. Risk management reduces the likelihood and / or impact of a risk.

II. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) technique is used mainly for safety critical systems.

III. All safety critical systems are subject to sector specific regulations only.

IV. Full traceability from requirements to evidence is required in some safety critical systems.

A. I, II, IV true, III false
B. II, III, IV true, I false
C. I, IV true, II, III false
D. All of the above true

 

Q. 10: Which one of the following is false about Metrics and Measurements?

Metrics and measurements are useful to identify;

A. Workload and resource usage
B. Actual and planed costs
C. Defects found, defect fixed, duration of correction
D. Testers motivation

 

Q. 11: Which of the following is the best description of a client?server application?

A. The application makes use of a web front end.

B. There is at least one computer that provides information to other computers.

C. There is one computer that provides information to dumb terminals.

D. The application(s) run on a single computer.

 

Q. 12: Which of the following best describes a difference between a sequential development model and an iterative one?

A. A sequential development model will always take longer than an iterative model, for a similar sized project.

B. A sequential development model guarantees that the customer will like the product, while the iterative model does not.

C. A sequential development model involves the users in testing mostly at the end of development, while the iterative model concentrates on the user perspective throughout development.

D. A sequential development model requires significant regression testing, while an iterative model does not.

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 2: Testing Processes

Q. 13: Select the correct statement;

I. Comparing actual progress against the plan is part of Test Controlling activity.

II. Updating the test plan if needed is part of test controlling activity.

III. Prioritization criteria identified during risk analysis should be applied only during test execution.

IV. Test conditions are identified by analyzing the test basis and test objectives.

A. I and IV true. II and II false.
B. I, II and IV true. III false.
C. I, II and III true. IV false.
D. II, III and IV true. I false.

 

Q. 14: Select the correct statement regarding test planning and control

A. Test controlling is a one-time activity that will occur at the beginning of the test effort.

B. Test planning includes identifying test activities and resources required for the test effort.

C. Complex relationships (many to many, one to many) cannot exist among test conditions, test cases and test procedures.

D. Risk and Test coverage is not a metric for test planning and control.　

 

Q. 15: The main Objective of Test Analysis and Design phase is to;

A. Create test strategy and test plan
B. Design and create the test environment
C. Identify test conditions and create test cases
D. Archive test results, logs and reports in the configuration management system

 

Q. 16: Which of the statements are true about test cases?

1. All test cases should be automated
II. Test cases should be repeatable
III. Test cases should be traceable back to requirements
IV. Test cases should have expected results

A. I, II and III are true, IV is false
B. II, Ill and IV are true, I is false
C. III and IV are true , I and II false
D. All of them are true

 

Q. 17: According to the ISTQB syllabus, Test Analysis and Design phase metrics include,

A. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test conditions covered by test cases and number of defects found during test analysis and design.

B. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test conditions covered by test cases and percentage of test cases automated.

C. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test cases automated and percentage of test environment configured.

D. Percentage of test cases automated, percentage of test cases executed and percentage of test environment configured.

 

Q. 18: Objectives of test implementation phase are;

I. Create test procedures.
II. Finalize and create test data and set up environment
III. Create a test execution schedule / order
IV. Check test level entry criteria

A. I and II true. III and IV false
B. II, III and IV true. I false
C. I, II, III and IV true.
D. III and IV true, I and II false

 

Q. 19: Select the correct answer;

A. If the expected and actual results do not match, it is always because of a defect in the software under test.

B. Customers should not be involved in any level of test execution.

C. Collecting test evidence /test logging is always up to the tester to decide.

D. Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase.

 

Q. 20: Select the correct answer;

I. IEEE 829 contains a standard for test summary report.

II. Test reporting can occur at the end of the testing effort.

III. Percentage of test time lost due to blocking events is not a valid metric to monitor.

IV. Test summary report may contain summary of testing activities, versions of the software tested and management approvals.

A. I, II and III are true, IV false
B. I and II true, III and IV are false
C. I, II and IV are true, III false
D. I and IV are true, II and III are false

 

Q. 21: Innovative solutions testing department delivered a software, which included the three new features along with the test qualification report. They also archived their test results, logs, and other test artifacts in company documentation database. Scheduled a lessons learned meeting with the software testers, project managers and software developers.

The innovative solutions testing department is describing;

A. Test analysis activities
B. Test planning activities
C. Test closure activities
D. User acceptance testing activities

 

Q. 22: Which of the following statements are true?

I. Percentage of test data loaded is a metric to monitor during test closure activities

II. Test coverage is a metric to monitor during test closure activities.

III. Cause Effect Analysis of defects can be done as part of test closure activities.

IV. Identification of potential process improvement can be done as part of test closure activities.

A. II, III and IV true, I is false
B. I true, II, III and IV false
C. II and III true, I and IV false
D. II and IV true, I and III false

 

Chapter 3: Test Management

Q. 23: Test Strategy;

A. Includes organization's methods of testing, risk management and high level activities of testing.
B. Cannot be preventive or reactive.
C. Includes the application of the test strategy to a project.
D. Describes desired quality targets.

 

Q. 24: Which of the statements are true about a test policy document?

Test policy document;

I. is a high level document which describes the company philosophy towards quality assurance.

II. contains the company values, goals related to testing and test process.

III. may contain activities for test process improvement.

IV. may contain information about how to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of testing.

A. I and II true, III and IV false
B. III and IV false, I and II true
C. I, II and IV true, III false
D. All of them are true

 

Q. 25: Which of the statements are true about Test Strategy approaches?

I. Company can use analytical strategy (risk based) for their test strategy.

II. Company can use dynamic strategy for their test strategy.

III. Company may combine two or more test strategies for their test activities.

IV. Company may not have a test strategy document.

A. I and II true
B. I II and Ill true
C. I, II, III and IV true
D. I, II, IV true

 

Q. 26: Master test plan may contain;

I. Items to be tested, out of scope test items

II. Testing schedule, budget

III. Entry and exit criteria for each level and relationship among each level

IV. Business value of testing

A. I, II true.
B. II, III true
C. I, III, IV true
D. I, II, III , IV true

 

Q. 27: Which of the statements are true about test documentations?

I. IEEE 829 standard contains test documentation template

11. Level test plan is a more detailed document which has information about testing tasks and milestones.

III. Test plan structures may vary depending on the organization and project.

IV. Test strategy or test plan is not required for safety critical projects.

A. I,II,III true
B. I, II, IV true
C. II III, IV true
D. III, IV true

 

Q. 28: Which statement is NOT true about test estimation?

A. Good test estimate provides specific detailed estimates of the costs, resources, and people involved.

B. Test estimate should be created by the test manager by him/herself, based on his/her own knowledge of the project.

C. Test estimate should consider all activities involved in test process (from test planning to test closure activities) and should document all the assumptions that were made.

D. Industry averages, predictive models, company standards, intuition and guesses are some of the techniques that can be used for test estimation.

 

Q. 29: Which of the following is correct about test progress monitoring?

I. According to ISQTB syllabus, Product Risks, Defects, Tests, Coverage and Confidence are 5 dimensions that can be used to monitor test progress.

II. Confidence is measured via surveys and questionnaires and outcome is subjective to the person responding.

III. Various metrics are used to measure the product risks, tests and coverage.

IV. One outcome of the progress monitoring could be to relax the test exit criteria.

A. All of the above is true
B. All of the above is false
C. I, II and III true.
D. I and II true.

 

Q. 30: Which of the following is correct?

A. Business value of testing can be grouped into two categories; Quantitative value and qualitative value.

B. Qualitative value includes finding defects and reducing risks by running test cases.

C. Cost of finding defects and internal failures are normally higher than cost of external failure.

D. It is not possible to manage a distributed testing team.

Q. 31: ABC is a software company based in USA that builds software to the retail community. Software is tested by two testing teams located in India and China. Testers do not work for ABC company. However, they have very good communication between the project team and well defined expectations for the quality of the software.

What type of test effort is described above?

A. In sourced
B. Outsourced
C. Distributed
D. None of the above

 

Q. 32: Which of the statement are true about risk based testing;

I. All risks have equal weights / concerns.

II. The level of risk is influenced by likelihood of the risk and impact of the risk.

III. All risks must be mitigated.

IV. Main developer quitting, during the coding phase of the project can be a project risk.

A. I and II true
B. I and III true
C. II and IV true
D. III and IV true

 

Q. 33: Select the correct matching pair. According to the ISTQB Syllabus;

I. Risk Identification
II. Risk Analysis
III. Risk mitigation

a. Methods include: Expert interviews, checklists, brainstorming and past experience.

b. Technical factors include: Training issues, tools and technology, conflicts within the team

c. Business factors include: Damage to the image, loss of license, legal issues

A. I-a,II-b,III-c
B. I-a,II-b,III-b
C. I-b,II-c,III-a
D. I-c,II-b,III-a

 

Q. 34: According to the ISTQB syllabus, major ways to handle risks are:

I. Mitigate the risk through preventive measures.
II. Make contingency plans to reduce impact if risk occurs.
III. Transfer the risk to someone else to handle.
IV. Ignore and accept the risk.

A. I, II and III true
B. I, II and IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. I, II, III, IV true

 

Q. 35: Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) should be applied;

A. In safety critical systems
B. Only on underground systems
C. Only on air traffic systems
D. In all systems

 

Q. 36: Innovative software solutions have adopted a new way of testing their software. Testers set up the test environment, scan the software and look for problems for about 3 hours every week on Mondays and Wednesdays (in addition to their normal test activities). They create a session sheet and record testers name, date and time started, issues found, task breakdown and defects found at the end. Then the test manager holds a meeting with the testers and reviews the session sheet. Manager asks the testers for their outlook, results, what happened during the testing and their feelings about past 3 hours.

What type of testing activity is described above?

A. Risk based testing
B. Exploratory Testing
C. State transition Testing
D. Decision Testing

 

Q. 37: A Software Company hired a new test manager to manage their testing department. There are 20 testers in the department and 3 of them are located in a different city than the rest of the team. Test team is expected to receive a new build next week for qualification. The project has high visibility from upper management and it is very important for the test manager to complete the qualification on-time. Three (3) new servers were ordered previously to setup the test environment for this new project. There are only 3 days left to begin testing and environment management (EM) team says they are busy with another project at the moment and setup will not be done until next week. If the network is not setup, testing will be impacted.

What is your advice to the new test manager?

A. Have a meeting with EM Manager and Project Manager and explain the situation and the project risk if servers are not setup in 3 days. Let the project manager make a decision.

B. Wait till EM team is done with their project.

C. Request testers to do the testing on old systems even though they do not have correct pre-requisite software.

D. Hire two additional testers to complete the project on-time.

 

Q. 38: Which of the following are included in test plans?

I. A schedule of events.
II. The set of test cases to be run.
III. The roles and responsibilities of stakeholders.
IV. The test data.
V. The test results and incidents raised.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II, IV and V
D. I and III

 

Q. 39: Which of the following would be an appropriate entry criterion from system testing into acceptance testing?

A. 100 per cent functional specification coverage.
B. 100 per cent business requirements coverage.
C. 100 per cent statement coverage.
D. 100 per cent path coverage.

 

Q. 40: Which of the following would give the best measure of progress against product quality?

A. The number of tests run against those planned.
B. The turnaround time for defects.
C. The number of high priority defects outstanding.
D. The time taken to run each test.

 

Q. 41: In which order should the following test management documentation be created?

I. Project test plan
II. Test strategy
III. Test policy
IV. Level test plan

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, III, IV
C. III, II, I, IV
D. I, IV, III, II

 

Q. 42: Which of the following is a test policy statement?

A. ToolX within the Efficient tool set will be required for this project.
B. Projects across the company will make use of the Efficient toolset.
C. Training will be required in ToolX for staff on this project.
D. ToolX will be required for a period of one month.

 

Q. 43: Which of the following could form part of the entry criteria into system testing?

I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations.
II. 100 per cent functional specification coverage of all household types.
III. Outstanding defects at integration testing highlighted.
IV. Test summary report for system testing produced.
V. Business requirements signed off.

A. I, II and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. I and III
D. I, III and IV

 

Q. 44: Which of the following would form part of the entry criteria into unit testing (which will be followed by integration testing)?

I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations.
II. Signed-off program specification.
III. Signed-off technical specification.
IV. 100 per cent program specification coverage.
V. Compiled code.

A. I, III and V
B. II and V
C. I, II and III
D. III, IV and V

 

Q. 45: A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce its fixed costs. The new supplier will be responsible for all new developments as well as enhancements to existing ones.

The bank has retained its own management team for its projects. There will be an in-house project manager, development manager and test manager for each project. Some staff may work on more than one project, depending on the overall size.

An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online, from ￡1k to ￡10k by answering a series of questions.

Which of the following best describes the usefulness of a test policy in this scenario?

A. The test policy will ensure that all members from both sets of teams understand what their roles and responsibilities are.

B. The test policy will identify the risks of each project, and ensure that all staff knows how to deal with them.

C. The test policy will ensure that all team members understand what is required by the bank to create high quality products.

D. The test policy will remind staff of the usefulness of using their own knowledge to conduct testing.

 

Q. 46: The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under unexpected threats.

The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to change their test management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality.

The software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements with hostile forces.

The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as possible. The project manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes will come as small change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years, with little staff turnover.

The project manager has asked for your advice on test estimation. Which of the following would you recommend?

A. Conduct a test point analysis on each change request definition.

B. Analyse data from previous projects to find changes similar to each change request, and use this to estimate the time required.

C. Ask the developers how long the change will take to implement and allocate 50 per cent of this to testing.

D. Ask the tester who will be doing the testing for a best guess.

 

Chapter 4: Test Techniques: Not applicable for Test Manager exam.

Chapter 5: Testing of Software Characteristics: Not applicable for Test Manager exam.

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews

Q. 47: Which of the following statements are correct?

I. IEEE 1028 is an international standard on reviews.

II. Early reviews are very cost effective in finding defects.

III. Review is considered a static testing

IV. All types of documents can be reviewed (source code, requirements document, test plan document)

A. I, II and III true
B. I, III and IV true
C. I, II, III and IV true
D. II, III and lV true

 

Q. 48: You are a test manager for ABC Company. CIO of ABC sent a meeting entry to you and your manager for a past project evidence and test deliverables review. A person from an external company would like to interview you regarding the previous project. This activity has a very high visibility from upper management.

What type of review is described above?

A. Management Review
B. Technical Review
C. Audit
D. Inspection

 

Q. 49: Select the matching pair;

I. Contractual Review
II. Requirement Review
III. Design Review

a. Involve Managers, customers and technical staff. Reviewing contract milestones.

b. Involve customers and technical staff. Review design solutions, test cases.

c. Involve auditor. Review compliance to processes and regulations.

d. Involve customers and technical staff. Reviewing functional and non functional requirements, test conditions.

A. I-a, II-d, III-b
B. I-c, II-b, III-a
C. I-a, II-b, III-c
D. I-b, II-c, III-d

 

Q. 50: Which of the following is most likely to be found in a review of a functional specification?

A. Undefined boundary values
B. Unreachable code
C. A failure in the system
D. A memory leak

 

Q. 51: Which of the following has learning as one of its main purposes?

A. Walkthrough
B. Informal review
C. Technical review
D. Inspection

 

Q. 52: Which of the following always makes use of entry and exit criteria?

A. Walkthrough
B. Informal review
C. Technical review
D. Inspection

 

Q. 53: A new system is being created. A form of iterative development, Agile development, is being used. The requirements capture process is typical of iterative development projects in that limited requirements are available. The functionality for the first iteration has been sketched out, but there is a real need for a quality system to be delivered, in good time.

Which of the following would provide the best reasoning for using walkthroughs on the first set of requirements?

A. They will ensure that managers understand what will be delivered for each iteration, so they can provide contingency.

B. Given the interest in quality, the requirements can be reviewed in detail, to ensure that the developers understand what is required.

C. Lessons can be learnt from the first iteration, which should help to improve on performance for subsequent iterations.

D. They will enable a wide range of stakeholders to understand what will be built and tested for the first iteration.

 

Q. 54: It is unusual to find the full inspection process being followed routinely in iterative development projects ? they are usually too costly in time and money.

Which part of the inspection process could we make use of here, to best effect?

A. Train the moderators for the technical reviews so that they can manage the process better.

B. Inspect the requirements for every other iteration to improve overall quality of the system.

C. Collect metrics at the end of each iteration on defects being found by severity and priority, and use this to plan for the next iteration.

D. Include the managers in the reviews so that they can appreciate the costs involved better and provide more contingency for things going wrong.

 

Q.55: A major supermarket is upgrading its online store in response to recent changes in consumer spending. It has reduced its ‘premium’ products range by offering less organic meat and vegetables and less exotic fruit and vegetables. It has increased its ‘friendly’ product range by increasing its locally sourced produce, and its ‘fair-trade’ range by including more products from overseas where growers are assured a fair price for their products.

The front-end design is changing to allow customers to select their shopper preferences, which are:

# environmentally friendly;

# family friendly;

# fair to all.

Customers will then be offered products falling into each of these categories.

The changes to the front end are considered to be simple, when compared with the changes required to the back end, to provide each customer group with the correct product choices.

The development life cycle is Agile development. One of the developers has begun creating a high-level design to help clarify the product categories.

He has decided to hold a review of the high-level design.

Which one of the following review types would be suitable for the high-level design, for the reasoning given?

A. A walkthrough of the design, so that those building the front end can understand how their software will interact with the back end.

B. A technical review of the design so that each product category can be tightly defined before the functionality is built.

C. An inspection of the design to see if it can be easily reused for later iterations.

D. A management review of the design to ensure that it will be fit for purpose.

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management

Q. 56: Select the correct pair;

I. "Unexpected occurrence that requires a further investigation"
II. "Recognition of failure caused by a defect"
III. Requires a change to the work item

a) Incident
b) Defect
c) Bug
d) Failure

A. I-a, II-a, III-b
B. I-a, II-d, III-b
C. I-b, II-c, III-d
D. I-c, II-d, III-b

 

Q. 57: Which of the following statements are correct?

I. A failure can be detected only by dynamic testing technique.
II. Defects can exist in test environment.
III. All incidents require a software change.
IV. Code and design reviews can reveal defects

A. I, II, III true
B. 1, II, IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. II, IV true

 

Q. 58: IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?

A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report.
B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective.
C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate.
D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective.

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 8: Standards & Test Improvement Process

Q. 59: Which of the following standard is a British standard for software component testing?

A. ISO 12207
B. IEEE 829
C. BS-7925-2
D. RTCA DO - 178B/ED 12B

 

Q. 60: Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Industries may tailor standards for their specific domain

II. Standards may differ based on countries, businesses and products.

III. All businesses should comply with same standard regardless of their business or country of origin.

IV. Standards exist for software reviews, software test documentations and random testing.

A. I, II, IV true. III false
B. I, II, III true. IV false
C. II, III, IV true, I false
D. III, IV true. II, II false

Q. 61: Which of the statements are correct?

I. There are two types of process improvement models as per the ISTQB Syllabus; Process reference model and content reference model.

II. Evaluation of an organization within the framework is called process reference model.

III. Software development and software testing processes can be improved using process improvement models.

IV. "Define and Redefine" is one of the steps that can be adopted during "process improvement" process.

A. I, II, III true
B. II, III false
C. All of them are true
D. All of them are false

 

Q. 62: Company ABC hired a well qualified consultant to perform a test process improvement assessment. The consultant concluded from the assessment that the company ABC is at the Initial level (Level 1) and provided few recommendations to improve the test process to next level (Definition). The test process improvement model he selected has 5 levels (5 being the highest level / Optimization).

According to the ISTQB syllabus, what process improvement model did he select?

A. CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration)
B. CTP (Critical Testing Process)
C. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
D. TPI (Test Process Improvement)

 

Q. 63: Test Process Improvement (TPI) maturity levels are;

A. Controlled, Efficient, Optimizing
B. Initial, Definition, Integration, Management & Measurement, Optimization
C. Planning, acquisition, measurement
D. None of the above

 

Q. 64: Which of the statements are true about test process improvement models?

I. STEP (Systematic Test and Evaluation Process) urges requirements based testing strategy.

II. Customer satisfaction is one of the STEP assessments metric.

III. Staged or continuous representation approaches are used in CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration).

IV. Process improvement models cannot be combined together.

A. I and II true. III and IV false.
B. I, II and III true. IV false
C. IV true. I, II and III false
D. All of them are true

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tools & Automation

Q. 65: Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

A. Cost benefit analysis should be done before purchasing test tools and analysis should show a good potential return on investment.

B. Bid bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization.

C. Maintenance fees, support fees, licensing fees and learning curve should be considered before introducing test tools to an organization.

D. Scripted / automated tests can be executed faster during test execution phase.

 

Q. 66: Which of the following statements are true about risks of introducing test automation tools?

I. Poorly designed test cases automated "as is" results in execution errors.

II. Reduce defect detection due to limited manual testing by a tester.

III. Too many dependencies to integrate test tools and test tool limitations.

IV. Unrealistic expectations from management.

A. I, III true
B. II, IV true
C. All of them are true
D. None of them are true

 

Q. 67: Which of the following statements are true?

I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.

II. To avoid human data comparison mistakes, test data comparison tool can be used.

III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.

IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work together.

A. II, III true. I,IV false
B. I, II true. III,IV false
C. II, III, IV true. I false
D. I, II, IV true. III false

 

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills - Team Composition

Q. 68: When selecting/hiring team members to an existing team, team dynamics must be considered. Which of the following should be considered when selecting staff to a team?

I. Consider mix of technical skills and personality
II. Each person should have a defined role
III. Cross-training within teams
IV. Knowledge of software lifecycle

A. I, II and III true
B. I, II true
C. IV true
D. All of the above

 

Q. 69: A Company develops websites for individual users / companies. The testing team tests each build of the software once development releases it. Once testers complete the testing, they also work on coding the next build of the software. All testers and developers report to project manager.

What type of independency is achieved above as per ISTQB syllabus?

A. "No independent testers"
B. Testing is done by a tester who is part of the development team
C. "External Test specialists perform testing"
D. "Testing is done by an organization external to the company"

 

Q. 70: Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing?

A. Cultural differences
B. Quality
C. Employee turnover
D. Low cost

Scenario: You work for a company that produces Ground X-ray machines and have just been assigned to work as the Test Manager on a newly-started project developing PC-based software to interpret the output from such machines using complex mathematical formulae. The software will be developed to work with the output from all Ground X-ray machines (including those from other manufacturers), which output the X-ray data to an agreed international standard (note that this standard is currently in the process of being updated). The unique setting point of the new software will be that it provides users with a graphical user interface; while current similar software packages (both from your company and others) do not have this feature.

It has been decided that the V life cycle model shall be used, using the following development phases.

# Analyze and Specify Software Requirements

# Specify Software Design

# Detailed Component Design
# Coding

Q. 71: Given the following test phases:

i. Component Testing
ii. Non-Functional Testing
iii. Component Integration Testing
iv. Hardware - Software Integration Testing
v. System Testing
Vi. Regression Testing

Assuming that acceptance testing will be included in your project test plan, which of the above would you also include?

A. ii, iii, iv
B. ii, iv, vi
C. I, iii, v
D. i, v, vi

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
In the V model there should be a corresponding test level for every development level (although code and unit test are often combined). Component testing corresponds to Coding, Component Integration Testing corresponds to Detailed Component Design, System Testing corresponds to Specify Software Design, and Acceptance Testing corresponds to Analyze and Specify Software Requirements. Non-Functional Testing is not a phase in itself - it is part of system testing. Regression testing, similarly, is not a phase i n itself, but used in several phases, while Hardware Software Integration Testing is not appropriate as the scenario does not require the software to interface to specific hardware (it is PC-based),

 

Q. 72: Which ONE of the following do you believe is the greatest risk to this software?

A. The software will not be compatible with other manufacturer's machines
B. The complex mathematical formulae will not be implemented correctly
C. The software will not be compatible with the new international standard
D. The usability of the graphical user interface is poor

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The major new functionality provided in the new system is the GUI, and it appears the company hasn't developed one before, hence the greatest risk is associated with this area. Compatibility with other manufacturer's machines is not really relevant as the requirement is to be compatible with the 'standard' data. Compatibility with the ‘standard' data is not especially high risk (given what we have been told) as it is relatively easy to test this as it wall be very well specified (in the standard). The complexity of the mathematical formulae is not high risk as the company has experience in this area, having implemented similar non-GUI systems before.

 

Q. 73: Which ONE of the following do you believe would add greatest value to the testing on this project?

A. Employing external usability testing expertise
B. Using inspections on the development outputs
C. Auditing compliance with the X-ray data standard
D. Requiring 100% decision coverage of all code

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
As was explained in the previous question, the highest risk area is the GUI, and employing an external usability testing consultant is an excellent way to directly mitigate this risk. The use of reviews in the V-model is appropriate, but using inspections is overkill for a project of this criticality. Auditing is appropriate to check compliance with standards, but auditing compliance with a data standard is difficult compared to auditing compliance with a process standard and so will not be cost effective. 100% decision coverage of all code is, again, overkill for a project of this criticality.

 

Q. 74: Which ONE of the following would you support as an approach to be used for acceptance testing of this software?

A. Contract acceptance testing
B. Alpha testing
C. Beta testing
D. Factory acceptance testing

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The software is PC-based, which introduces compatibility/ configuration problems given the enormous variation in PC builds and configurations. The (relatively low) criticality of the application means that configuration and compatibility testing will not be cost effective, and gaining access to suitable test tabs is expensive. Beta testing will also allow users to interact with the software in a relaxed manner and should more closely represent normal use (compared to alpha testing in a lab at the company). Beta testing will also introduce the possibility of the software interacting with X-ray machines from different companies, which may implement the data standard slightly differently. Contract acceptance testing and factory acceptance testing (which are the same thing) are appropriate for acceptance testing when there is a single customer.

 

Scenario: Your test team has been created by transferring the testers who previously worked on prior versions of the X-ray interpretation software, although one of those most familiar with the complex formulae has gone on maternity leave. It has been agreed that this team member can be replaced, and testers with the following traits are available for selection.

Q. 75: Which ONE of would you choose to join your test team?

A. With a background in X-ray interpretation formulae
B. Qualified to ISTQB Advanced Test Analyst level
C. Experience in GUI test automation
D. Experienced in usability testing

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This answer follows on from the rationale that the highest risk is the GUI. GUI test automation might be useful; but we need good usability tests to automate first - hence the usability testing experience. As we are presumably not re-inventing the wheel and re-coding the formulae, then expertise in this area is unnecessary.

 

Scenario: A rival company has announced that they are developing a competing software product and their published date for release is one month ahead of your planned release date, which is currently b months away. The project manager- has been told to move your release date to just 4 month's time.

Q. 76: Which ONE of the following suggestions would you support to accomplish this reduction:

A. Change to an agile life cycle
B. Increase resources for development and testing
C. Change to a two stage incremental life cycle with the formulae and the user interface as the two stages
D. Reduce the planned testing

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This to an agile life cycle will not make the development quicker at this point in time as we know what we want (the requirements are quite clear). Delivering in two increments is pointless as the formulae without the GUI (and vice versa) mean we will be delivering useless increments - and overall the development time will be longer. If we reduce the planned testing we will compromise the quality. We have no reason to suspect that we were 'gold plating' this development in the first place - so reducing quality will cost more in the long run, and may slow down time to market if we get more faults that block development and/or test progress. So the best answer is to add resources and get it down quicker that way.

 

Scenario: You have been provided with a project test document that includes the following statements:

# Test completion criteria will be rigorously applied
# Unit testing will be performed as part of test-driven development
# User acceptance test cases shall be specified in advance
# User acceptance testing will be performed on a regular basis, every 3 weeks
# A regime of continuous reviews shall be implemented

Q. 77: Which of the following life cycles do you believe is most likely being used on this project?

A. V
B. Spiral
C. Agile
D. W

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The test driven development, continuous reviews and 3 weekly acceptance testing are all major clues that an agile project is being described. The other two points (test cases specified in advance and rigorous application of test completion criteria) are both valid for agile as well as more traditional approaches.

 

Q. 78: Which of the following types of test management document do you believe you have been given?

A. Master Test Plan
B. Phase Test Plan
C. Test Strategy
D. Test Policy

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The document cannot be Test Strategy or Test Policy as in the ISTQB syllabus these are both organizational documents and the scenario explains we are looking at project test documentation. It cannot be a Phase Test Plan as it talks about different test phases - so it must be parts of the Master Test Plan.

 

Q. 79: Give the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run.

Tests planned	1000
Initial tests run	500
Initial tests passed	350
Retests run	80

A. 700
B. 720
C. 784
D. 570

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
If 500 tests have been run and 350 passed then 150 failed - hence 0.3 (150/ 500) is the failure rate. Of the 500 run, the 150 that failed need to be rerun and 80 of these have been run already, hence of the first 500, just 70 (150-80) are left to re-run. Assuming the same failure rate (0.3) then for the second 500 tests we can expect 150 to fail again so these will need to be re-run, giving 500+150=650 tests. If we acid the 70 remaining from the first 500, we get 720 (70+650).

 

Scenario: The following figures for the testing on a project (with three main functions) show the number of risks at different levels of risk exposure identified and analyzed and the number subsequently mitigated bar the testing.

Q. 80: Which ONE of the following statements most closely reflects the above figures?

A. Risk-based testing was not used on the project
B. Risk based testing was used to target the highest risk functions
C. Risk-based testing was used to target the lowest risk functions
D. Risk-based testing was used to target the highest level risks

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The table with remaining risks is shown below. As can be seen the testing has taken out all the high level risks and most of the medium level risks hence the mitigation strategy was to target the highest level risks (irrespective of function).

Correct Answers to Earlier Q. 71 to 80 are at the end of this page:

Q. 81: Which ONE of the following statements most closely reflects the risk in the project before and after the mitigation by testing?

A. Function C is now the lowest risk function
B. Only two high level risks have not been mitigated
C. Function B is now the highest risk function
D. The most risks were mitigated in Function C

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The table with remaining risks is shown below. Function A is now the lowest risk function, all high level risks have been mitigated, and 11 risks were mitigated in Function C compared with 13 in the other two functions. Hence that leaves Function B as the highest risk function with more medium and low level risks than the other two functions.

 

Q. 82: Which of the following is the primary test basis for acceptance testing?

A. High-level design specification
B. Low-level design specification
C. Requirements specification
D. Defect reports from earlier releases

 

Q. 83: Which of the following is a general testing principle from the ISTQB Foundation syllabus?

A. Probe effect
B. Defect clustering
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Incident reporting

 

Q. 84: You are working as the system test manager on a large project. Following an incremental lifecycle model, the development team plans to deliver three bundles of features, labeled Critical, Important, and Enhancing, to the test team on the first working day of March, April, and May, respectively. Which of the following statements is true?

A. There is no need to write a system test plan for a project that is following an incremental lifecycle model, as such plans are only written for V-model projects.

B. The system test plan should include an entry criterion that requires a feature complete build delivered to system test prior to any test execution.

C. The system test plan should govern which specific features are included in each of the three bundles, and disallow any changes in that feature selection.

D. The system test plan should specify how the test team will perform regression testing for the Critical and Important features when the Enhancing bundle of features is delivered.

 

Q. 85: You are working on a project to develop a browser-based information system for a state legislature. You are the system test manager. The system test team is responsible for functional and non-functional testing. During the requirements specification period, the test team leads a quality risk analysis effort for the project. The quality risk analysis identifies over 25 different defects in the requirements specification, including a situation where the number of concurrent users of the system was significantly under-estimated. Which of the following is a way in which this early testing activity directly benefits test execution?

A. By raising the stature of the test team in the eyes of project management.
B. By demonstrating the fallibility of the business analysts who wrote the requirements specification.
C. By providing reasons to cancel the project prior to wasting too much money on it.
D. By preventing bugs that would otherwise arise during test execution.

 

Q. 86: You are working as the test manager on a project to allow customers to make on-line home mortgage loan applications. The bank has provided a flowchart that shows the decision points for determining whether someone can receive a loan, and, if so, for how much and at what interest rate. This document is likely to be the most important input for which of the following test process activities?

A. To write a test plan
B. To generate exit criteria
C. To design functional test cases
D. To design non-functional test cases

 

Q. 87: Assume you are responsible for system testing of an embedded system that is used to control a gas station fuel pump. Assume that you have received a functional specification, but no specification of non-functional characteristics like response time, reliability, or security. Which of the following statements is tare?

A. You should attempt to get information that will allow you to develop non-functional tests as well as functional tests

B. System testing never addresses non-functional characteristics, so this is not a problem

C. Non-functional characteristics are not important for embedded systems like this one

D. You can assume these non-functional characteristics were addressed in integration testing

 

Q. 88: A company is developing a new type of software application and wants very much to be first to market. The system test execution period is scheduled for twelve weeks.

Four weeks into system test execution, the marketing manager learns that their closest competitor is within six weeks of releasing a version of this type of application. He convinces the project management team to release the application as it currently exists, removing four features which are too buggy for delivery and documenting workarounds or limitations for the other known bugs. This decision violates the exit criteria defined in the system test plan.

The four withheld features, fixes for the remaining known bugs, plus any additional bug fixes or enhancements requested by early adopters, are to be delivered in a maintenance release due out thirteen weeks after initial release.

Which of the following statements about this situation is certainly true?

A. This release decision was ill advised, as the quality problems will definitely cost the company market share.

B. The test manager should resign in protest to protect her reputation from being associated with such a poor product.

C. There are no consequences associated with making decisions like this, as quality levels are really quite arbitrary.

D. The maintenance release will need significant regression testing if the company wants to ensure the features which are released now are not broken by that release

 

Q. 89: You are working as a test manager at an organization that maintains an existing, profitable family of applications. Releases to these applications undergo a different number of levels of testing and a different extent of testing depending on whether the release is considered low, medium, or high risk. Which of the following is a test management document where you would find a discussion of how to determine the risk of a release, the levels of testing required, and the extent of testing?

A. Test strategy
B. System test plan
C. Component test plan
D. Test design specification

 

Q. 90: Consider the following excerpt from a system test plan:

Tests shall be run in four stages, with all tests within a stage run before the next stage is started. The stages are formed by dividing the system test set into four non-overlapping subsets as follows:

1. To identify the tests for stage one, select one test for each very high and high risk items identified in the quality risk analysis.

2. To identify the tests for stage two, select one test for each major functional area identified in the system requirements.

3. To identify the tests for stage three, select one test for each other risk item identified in the quality risk analysis for which test cases were generated.

4. Stage four consists of all remaining tests.

In which section of an IEEE 829-compliant test plan would you expect to find this statement?

A. Approach
B. Risks and contingencies
C. Staffing and training needs
D. Exit criteria

 

Q. 91: What is a test level?

A. The individual element to be tested
B. A group of test activities that are organized and managed together
C. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests
D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result

 

Q. 92: While planning for a project, you predict that each one thousand (1,400) new or changed lines of code will contain 50 defects when delivered for system testing, based on historical averages for your organization. The development manager tells you that she has estimated 50,000 new or changed lines of code for this project.

During system testing, the system test team discovers approximately 4,000 defects before the system is finally released. The test execution period lasts about 500 longer than estimated.

Given the information above, what can you say is certainly true about this project?

A. More new or changed lines of code were delivered than planned,
B. More defects per 1,000 new or changed tines of code were found.
C. The increase in test execution time was proportional to the increase in defects.
D. The development team experienced staff turnover during the project.

 

Q. 93: Consider the following potentials benefits and risks associated with writing a test plan whip the requirements specification is being finalized:

1. Arranging support from other project participants
2. Identifying requirements that create test project risks
3. Revising the test plan when requirements are finalized
4. Canceling the project (and the test effort) if sponsors do not approve requirements identifying requirements that create product (quality) risks

Which are potential benefits and which are risks?

A. Benefits: 2, 3, 5; Risks: f , 4
B. Benefits: 2, 3; Risks: I, 4, 5
C. Benefits: 1, 2, 5; Risks: 3, 4
D. Benefits: 1; Risks: 21 3, 4, 5

 

Q. 94: Consider the following table, which shows major risk categories, test results, and bugs.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Significant risks remain in the category of functionality
B. Significant risks remain in the category of usability
C. No risks remain in the category of maintainability
D. No risks remain in the category of portability

 

Q. 95: Consider the following project activities:

I. Write the project plan
II. Write the test plan
III. Assign developers to fix hogs
IV. Report test status
V. Obtain project sponsors
Test estimation addresses which of these activities?

A. II, III, and IV only
B. I, II, and lII only
C. I and I only
D. II and IV only

 

Q. 96: You are writing a system test plan and are describing the test items. Consider the following project team members:

I. Release engineering manager
ii. Project manager
III. Technical support manager
IV. Marketing manager
V. Business analyst

With whom are you most likely to collaborate when writing this section of the test plan?

A. I and III
B. IV and V
C. I and II
D. II and III

 

Q. 97: Consider the following events that can occur during test execution:

I. A test passes
II. A test reveals a bug
III. A test release is delivered late to testing
IV. A tester resigns
V. A confirmation test passes

Which of the following statements is true?

A. I, II, and III reduce quality risk
B. I, II, and V reduce quality risk
C. II, IV, and V reduce quality risk
D. II, Ill, and IV reduce quality risk

 

Q. 98: Which of the following statements captures the difference between project (planning) and product (quality) risks?

A. Project risks have a higher likelihood, while product risks have a higher impact

B. Product risks can be eliminated by use of good technology, while project risks always exist

C. Project risks affect all project stakeholders, while product risks affect only testers

D. Product risks affect the success of the product, while project risks affect the success of the project

 

Q. 99: Assume you are developing a product for mass-market sales. Suppose that a risk analysis identifies potential performance defects as a high-level risk. Which of the

following statements is true?

A. You should wait until system test execution to reduce the performance risks.
B. You should assume that your customers would deal with performance risks.
C. You should identify actions to take throughout the lifecycle to reduce the performance risks.
D. You should assume that the development manager would deal with performance risks.

 

Q. 100: A requirements specification contains the following excerpt:

The system messages shall score at or below the 8th grade reading level on the Flesch-Kincaid grade level scale.

Which of the following quality risk items can be derived from this requirements specification excerpt?

A. Messages returned too slow
B. Messages lost behind active window
C. Messages presented in the wrong language
D. Messages too difficult to understand

Q. 101: Assume that you are the test manager for a large banking application development project. Earlier in the project, you identified 640 product risks which were deemed significant enough to deserve some amount of testing.

During test execution, you attend a project management meeting where you are asked to report test status. The following is true of the identified risks:

# Significant product risks identified during project planning: 640
# Significant product risks identified during test execution: 84
# Test coverage of significant risks: 100%
# Risks for which all tests are run and passed: 637
# Risks for which one or more tests fail: 70
# Risks for which one or more tests remain to be run: 47

For some risks, one or more test has failed and one or more test remains to be run. After presenting these facts, you are asked for your opinion on the residual level of risk.

Which of the following is a reasonable response?

A. It is not possible to determine the residual level of risk until all tests have been run.

B. Most risks are addressed, but some risks remain related to known bugs and untested risk areas.

C. Since over 85% of risks have been tested without any bugs being found, over 85% of the risk has been removed.

D. Many new risks have been identified during test execution, and that should not happen.

 

Q. 102: Consider the following activities:

I. Group brainstorming
II. Bug taxonomy
III. Standard templates
IV. One-on-one interviews
V. Past bug analysis
VI. Risk checklist

Which of the following are techniques for gathering the collective judgment and insight of the stakeholders in risk identification and analysis?

A. I and IV
B. I and II
C. II and V
D. III and VI

 

Q. 103: During the system test phase, a tester is running a predefined test case against an e-commerce system. She finds that this test case causes the host browser to crash in five out of five attempts to repeat the problem. As this test case exercises a critical customer use case, she tries but cannot identify a workaround.

Which of the following is an additional step the tester should perform to properly classify this incident?

A. Ask the project manager what phase the project is in.
B. Try to isolate the incident and find a suspected cause.
C. Determine the repeatability of the failure.
D. Identify the symptom associated with this failure.

 

Q. 104: Consider the following excerpt from the incident description field of an IEEE 829 compliant bug report for an online e-commerce application that sells CDs and DVDs:

1. I was running test 09-157, which involves purchasing a large number of CDs and DVDs.

2. While specifying a quantity of a CD or DVD to purchase, I entered 99, which is the maximum allowed quantity in the requirement specification.

3. I expected the system to accept the input. However, the system responded with an error message, "No more than 10 items can be purchased."

Which of the following elements is missing from this report?

A. The test being run
B. The actual result
C. The expected result
D. Check for reproducibility

 

Q. 105: According to the IEEE 1044. 1 standard, what is true about making are organization's incident management process compliant with IEEE 1044 standard?

A. All classifications and supporting data collection listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented

B. All mandatory classifications and supporting data collection listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented without tailoring

C. All mandatory classifications listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented without tailoring

D. All mandatory classifications listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented with appropriate tailoring

 

Q. 106: An organization wants to improve its overall process capabilities, both in terms of developing better software and doing more effective testing.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. They can use TPI for development process improvement and TMM for test process improvement.

B. They can use CMMI for development process improvement and TMM for test process improvement.

C. They can use SPICE for development process improvement and ISO 15504 for test process improvement.

D. They can use CMMI for development process improvement and SPICE for test process improvement.

 

Q. 107: Consider the fourteen levels of increasing maturity in the Test Process Improvement model, from 0 to 13. Assume an organization is starting at the 0 level, and wants to advance to level 1. Which of the following is a key area of testing to improve to achieve this level?

A. Defect management
B. Metrics
C. Low-level testing
D. Test automation

 

Q. 108: You are assessing the maturity of a test team using both TMM and TP1, While evaluating the situation with the test environment, you find that the tests are performed in the same environment used to develop the software. This environment is defined, maintained, and modified according to the direction of the development team. In addition, developers debug software in this environment during test execution whenever a defect is found, and tests execution continues during debugging.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. This situation would prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM and would prevent achievement of Level 1 maturity under TPI.

B. This situation would not prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM but would prevent achievement of Level 1 maturity under TPI.

C. This situation would prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM but would not prevent achievement of Level 1 maturity under TPI.

D. This situation would not prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TAW and would not prevent achievement of Level 1 maturity under TPI.

 

Q. 109: A business analyst who is familiar with the use of the system under test is asked to participate in test execution.

Which of the essential testing skills i she most likely to bring to the test process

A. Foreign-language knowledge
B. Technical knowledge
C. Testing knowledge
D. Domain knowledge

 

Q. 110: A test manager wants to perform a skips inventory to identify gaps in the test team's skill levels. Which of the following is a necessary step in that process?

A. Obtain an increase in the training budget for the test team
B. Assess the spills required to perform critical testing tasks.
C. Ask the testers what their training needs are.
D. Remove inexperienced testers from the test team.

Q. 111: You are managing the functional system testing effort for a simple e-commerce application that sells books, CDs, and DVDs on the Internet. You are not responsible for testing server-side or data centre behaviours, or any non-functional attributes like performance or usability, though management has encouraged you to report such problems if you see them. Based on your past experience with this organization and their development practices, you know that the requirements specification will be vague and high-level and that your opportunities for early test team involvement will be limited.

Which of the following should be true of your team?

A. You form a team of testers with heavy representation of specialized domain experts such as librarians, music store employees, and video store managers

B. You form a team of testers with heavy representation of specialized technology experts such as performance testers, programmers, and network engineers

C. You form a team of experienced testers with general Internet skills, good motivation, and knowledge of how such systems fail

D. You form a team of testers comprised mostly of low-skip test technicians with two or three test engineers writing detailed test scripts

 

Q. 112: You are working as a test manager on a project that is facing hard deadlines for delivery and strict budget limits. On previous projects, quality was seen as much more important than schedule or budget targets, so these constraints are a new experience for your test team. The number of berg reports they have filed which were subsequently deferred is demotivating some of your testers.

How might you best handle the situation?

A. Explain to your team the value of deferred bugs, and the plans for future releases that will fix them

B. Encourage your team to only report bugs they know will be fixed, to avoid slowing down the project

C. Remove the testers who are openly complaining, as they will ultimately de-motivate others

D. Ignore the situation, since tolerating a certain amount of grumbling is part of being a manager

 

Scenario:
A surgical operating theatre uses a pump that circulates blood around the body during heart operations when the heart itself is stopped for surgery. The pump is monitored and controlled by a computer system.

A software house, SCC specializes in safety critical systems and has created this system.

It uses the V-Model for software development (with 4 levels of testing ? unit, component integration, system, acceptance testing). The nature of the failure is that when the surgeon switches the control over to the artificial pump, the pump occasionally fails to initiate correctly and subsequently may stop during surgery.

You are the test manager.

Q. 113: Which two of the following criteria would you recommend for entry into system testing?

a. 100% product requirements coverage.
b. 100% decision coverage.
c. Signed off system test strategy
d. Signed off technical specification.

A. b and c.
B. a and c.
C. b and d.
D. a and d.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question looks at entry criteria into system testing (within the V-model).

a. This is an entry criterion into acceptance testing
b. This is an exit criterion out of unit/integration testing, which would form part of the entry criteria into system testing.c. This can be expected at system testing.
d. This is an entry criterion into integration testing.

 

Q. 114: Which two of the following would be the most appropriate test design techniques for use at system testing?

a. Statement testing.
b. Decision table testing.
c. Path testing.
d. State transition testing

A. b and d.
B. a and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:

a. This is more appropriate at unit and integration testing

b. This is a specification-based technique, suitable for use at system testing.

c. As for a. It should also be borne in mind that path testing , whilst thorough, is difficult to conduct in the real world.

d. This is an entry criterion into system testing.

 

A very serious failure has been reported. When the surgeon switches the control over to the artificial pump, the pump occasionally fails to initiate correctly and subsequently may stop during surgery.

Q. 115: Despite the time pressure inherent in the situation described in Scenario 1, which of the following reasons would be the best justification for using inspections in this case?

A. The most formal type of review is always the best choice for such a safety critical system.

B. Inspections allow process improvement which will contribute to future enhancements being implemented more smoothly.

C. The thoroughness of the inspection process provides the best chance of localizing the defect(s) that caused the failure.

D. Inspections allow the team to learn more about the system and consequently this approach reduces the risk of introducing further errors.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The intention of this question is to steer the candidate away from the questions and answers most often encountered in relation to inspections and force them to apply what they know to the scenario. The scenario and the question direct the candidate to the present situation.

Answer A is that may seem to be obviously true at first sight, but is not a good choice in this case, especially in face of the scenario (inspections are not in use).

Answer B points to some future benefit, which would be of some value but would be of little practical significance in the circumstances described in the scenario.

Answer C is a key benefit of an inspection ? to thoroughly review a work-product, which in this case is the paramount need.

Answer D is again about future benefits and therefore less significant than something relating to the current time limited and critical situation.

 

Q. 116: Once the defect above has been addressed, which of the following best describes the next steps?

A. Proceed immediately to user acceptance testing to prevent delays in this critical project.

B. Defer user acceptance testing until code changes have been unit tested.

C. Inspect the code before unit testing and then proceed to user acceptance testing.

D. Complete associated unit, system and regression testing before proceeding to acceptance testing.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
The answer to this question does not require significant analysis of the scenario and is a straightforward application of basic testing principles to a safety critical system. Nevertheless the scenario must be taken into account because the nature of the system precludes the less rigorous approaches suggested.

 

Scenario:
A supplier of fine teas is upgrading its website. It will use the Rapid Application Development model (RAD). The key improvements required are to improve the usability and performance of the current website.

The development team will comprise three developers and a tester. You are the tester and you are experienced in website testing and iterative development models.

The test basis comprises:

# Story boards which show information flow and page linkages through the site;

# HTML pages developed to date;

# A statement of non-functional requirements.

Q. 117: An incident report template is being created, with the following fields currently added.

# Incident description
# Date on which the incident was raised
# Author of the incident report
# Status of the incident

You have been asked for guidance on which are the key additional fields to include.

Which of the following options would you recommend as the best combination of fields to add?

A. Incident severity, version of the software under test, incident identification.

B. Date to be fixed, incident severity, incident identification.

C. Developer assigned to the fix, version of the software under test, incident identification.

D. Incident severity, version of the software under test, date to be fixed.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a question on the knowledge of the key fields in an incident report.

The answer hinges on recognising that incident severity is a key field (eliminating answer C), incident identification is essential (eliminating answer D), and version of the software under test (when the incident was found) is much more important than date to be fixed, especially in an environment where versions of the software may be changing rapidly.

 

Q. 118: Which three of the following would provide the best measures of test progress, in order to determine a likely ‘go-live’ date?

a. Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed.
b. Number of high priority defects outstanding.
c. The team’s timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing.
d. Number of tests passed and number failed.
e. Number of defects found in each developer area.
f. The rate at which defects are being found.

A. b, c and d.
B. a, c and e.
C. a, b and f.
D. d, e and f.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a K4 question because it goes beyond selecting ‘ideal’ good measurements and asks the candidate to consider the scenario and the specific requirements in this case.

Options c and e are the most easily spotted distracters; all of the others are plausible. Given that the main aim is to predict a ‘go live’ date we need to know how much testing is still outstanding and what is happening that might affect the rate at which we complete that testing.

Option a tells us how much (planned) testing is still to be done and also enables us to make some estimate of the rate at which we are getting through planned testing. Option b provides a quick view of the status of the system and the amount of work outstanding to bring it to readiness for release. Option d is a useful measure of the product quality in general but is less directly aimed at predicting a release date than option b. Option e is not relevant for answering the immediate question. Option f is a measure of the relative stability of the system at this stage and is therefore very relevant to proposing a release date.

 

Q. 119: Which of the following options would be the most significant considerations when designing the test environment?

a. Anticipated number of concurrent users.
b. Anticipated number of website hits.
c. Common browser/ platform variations.
d. The skill of the developers.
e. Test data readiness.

A. a, b and c.
B. b, c and d.
C. a, d and e.
D. b, c and e.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question is introduced mainly to provide an example of a test environment question. There is a connection to the scenario, but it does not require significant analysis.

Option a is required because load testing is required; option b is required because reliability testing is needed; option c is required because configuration testing is required; option d is irrelevant in producing good environments; option e is required for testing to commence and setting up test data could be part of the test environment but test data readiness is not a consideration for designing the environment.

Options a, b and c are therefore clearly signalled by the scenario and candidates should be able to eliminate d and e as being peripheral or irrelevant to the scenario.

 

Q. 120: Which of the following methods is likely to provide the most accurate estimate for the overall test effort?

A. Using Test Point Analysis on the storyboard ideas.
B. Allocate 30% of the development time to testing.
C. Consult with the developers in order to reach consensus on time required.
D. Check with the deadline from release and work back from this.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question needs an understanding of the scenario and the nature of the application. It tests that the candidate has considered the scenario in making a choice.

Option A is incorrect because it requires detailed knowledge of Function Points and this is not inferred in the scenario, also it is only looking at a small part of the system ? the story boards.

Option B is unlikely to provide an accurate estimate. .

Option D is incorrect because the estimate should be derived in order to determine the release date, and not the other way around.

Q. 121: Which one of the following represents the best approach to test design?

A. A detailed scripted approach using a variety of black box techniques to maximise functional coverage.

B. A detailed scripted approach using a variety of white box techniques to ensure there is no redundant code.

C. An Exploratory Testing approach using a variety of functional and non-functional techniques to maximise the value of the team’s experience.

D. An Exploratory Testing approach using a variety of functional and non functional techniques as this will ensure the website is completed quickly.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question is tied very clearly to several aspects of the scenario.

In this case option A is interesting but not conclusive, since a detailed scripted approach might not be feasible.

Option B should be eliminated because white box testing would not be a priority in this case.

Option D incorporates an inappropriate reason for selecting the approach since there is no reason to assume that this approach would be quicker than any other.

Option C should be much more attractive because we have plenty of relevant experience available.

 

Q. 122: Which of the following reviews would suitable here?

a. Informal walkthrough of all materials they have to ensure the team has a shared understanding.

b. A management review to evaluate the project risk associated with implementing the storyboard.

c. A formal inspection of the storyboard to ensure that the requirements won’t change during the course of the project.

d. A technical review of the html pages by the development team.

e. A walkthrough with the whole team present in which architectural decisions are made quickly.

A. a, b and d.
B. b, c and d.
C. a, b and e.
D. c, d and e.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question requires some thought about the nature of review techniques and their potential impact in this situation.

Option a should be attractive as a standard way to use a walkthrough and clearly relevant.

Option b should also be recognised as appropriate,

Option c gives a spurious reason for inspecting, but there would anyway be little value in formally inspecting something which is intended to be open ended and to stimulate ideas.

Option d is plausible and would add value; option e is a plausible review type but used for an inappropriate reason.

 

Scenario:
A major retail operation has a purchasing system with a number of distributed purchasing centres. A central Management Information System (MIS) consolidates inventory levels and purchasing needs in order to generate management reports. The purchasing centre site servers upload their data regularly using batch processing. Management reports are prepared from the central MIS database daily.

The number of purchasing centre sites is expected to triple over the next 5 years. The existing system architecture is not coping with the existing load and a major upgrade is planned to increase its capacity to cope with the extra demand. In addition, functional enhancements will be made to the MIS. The upgrade is required as a matter of urgency.

A draft test strategy is in place for the upgrade project.

The project team is using the V model with 4 levels of testing: component, component integration, system and user acceptance testing. Each level has a level test plan.

Q. 123: Look at the following list of tools:

a. Incident management tool.
b. Modelling tool.
c. Configuration management tool.
d. Monitoring tool.

Which options would be the most effective combination for use at the system test level for this project?

A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and c.
D. a and d.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
In this question the candidate needs to absorb and apply the information given in the scenario to make a rational choice of tools. In the list of options:

# a is appropriate at system testing
# b would be inappropriate at the system testing level; it is a tool for analysis;
# c is appropriate at all test levels, including system testing
# d could be appropriate at the system level test, but is more useful once the system is in operation

 

Q. 124: Which of the following would be included in a test strategy for the upgrade?

a. MIS new functionality testing.
b. MIS regression testing.
c. Functionality of the site servers.
d. Load testing across the network.
e. Testing of the presentation of the management reports.

A. a, b and d.
B. c, d and e.
C. a, b and e.
D. a, d and e.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question requires the candidate to recognise the nature of the application and the priorities for testing in the scenario. None of the answers is ‘wrong’ in an absolute sense, but some are certainly more appropriate than others. There is clearly a need to test new MIS functionality and regression test the MIS that would override any other priorities, so options a and b need to be in the answer. This eliminates all but answers A and C. The management reports are not subject to change, and therefore do need to be included in testing of the upgrade.

 

Q. 125: Which of the following would be suitable entry criteria for the system testing of the upgrade project?

a. Sign-off of the program specification.
b. No outstanding severity 1 defects from integration testing.
c. Requirements coverage matrix completed.
d. System test design completed and environment ready.

A. a and b.
B. c and d.
C. b and d.
D. a and c.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
a. This is an entry criterion into unit testing

b. This is an exit criterion out of integration testing, which would form part of the entry criteria into system testing

c. This is an exit criterion out of acceptance testing

d. This is an entry criterion into system testing.

 

A decision has been taken to add an extra level of testing ? Operational Acceptance Testing (OAT).

Q. 126: Which of the following best describes the effects of this change?

A. There will be no effects.
B. Unit testing can now be reduced due to the extra test level.
C. The overall strategy needs to be changed to take account of the extra test level.
D. More users will be required to participate in user acceptance testing.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
a. This should be a clear distracter!
b. This may be possible, but must be considered as part of the bigger picture.
d. This is unlikely to be a result of introducing an extra level of testing.

 

As the time pressure increases towards the end of the project, the Project Manager wishes to negate some of the costs of OAT, by reducing the amount of testing carried out at the system test level.

Q. 127: Which of the following best describes the potential impact of this?

A. Reducing any test levels is always a bad thing and will have some impact on the project.

B. Reducing the system test level will reduce some of the project risk but at the expense of increased product risk.

C. Reducing the system test level is no problem in this instance because we have not found many problems so far.

D. Reducing the system test level is your responsibility as project manager and I do not want to be associated with that decision.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a question related to risk. It is, perhaps, a little too easy to eliminate option A because it is dogmatic, and option D because it reflects an inappropriate attitude. On the other hand, this could be considered a good way to assess that a candidate has actually recognised that the attitudes expressed in options A and D are inappropriate.

Option C is tempting but has an element of ‘hoping for the best’, whereas option B offers clear and sound advice that is balanced. It is not a complete answer in itself but it is the best of the four options and relates to the need to be balanced in advising key stakeholders as well as assessing risk.

 

Scenario:
A large financial organisation is upgrading its trading system. The system is used by well over 2000 traders world-wide, who depend on timely and accurate presentation of information. The core functionality of the operating system is being changed, but other parts of the system will remain as before. Applications accessing the core functionality will also remain unchanged. The upgrade project is expected to last three months. Testing will include User Acceptance Testing (UAT) by staff experienced in using different parts of the system. Most systems have evolved over time and are largely undocumented.

Q. 128: Which one of the following options would be a valid testing policy statement for the organisation described in above Scenario?

A. The upgrade project will not use test automation tools.
B. The planned upgrade will be tested using the same testing strategy as the most recent upgrade.
C. All outstanding defects must be addressed within the planned 3 month upgrade project.
D. The Fundamental Test Process must be followed for all projects.　

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a straightforward question, but experience has shown that many candidates answer questions related to test policy incorrectly, so the question provides an opportunity to show what thought process is expected. In this question only option D is at the organisational level and therefore qualifies as a testing policy statement. The others are significant (tactical) decisions for the upgrade project, but not policy issues for the organisation.

 

Q. 129: Which of the following would be recommended for the upgrade project?

a. Load and volume testing because of the large number of traders needing to access the system

b. Use of structure-based techniques because too little is known about the functionality of the applications.

c. Exploratory testing because of the lack of specifications, though there is some understanding of the functionality.

d. State transition testing because of the large number of applications to be tested.

A. a and c.
B. a and d.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.

Explanatio in support of the correct Answer:
This question requires a little analysis and careful thought. In the list of options, a is plausible, b is clearly inappropriate in a system in which even functionality is not well documented, c is a good choice for the same reason, in d, State Transition Testing is not used because of numbers of applications.

 

Q. 130: Which of the following is a product risk?

A. Use of new team members with no experience in the new operating system.
B. Significant financial loss if the trading environment is negatively impacted by the upgrade.
C. Some applications may not function properly after the upgrade.
D. The upgrade project may not be completed on time.Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
Options A, B and D are not product risks.

Q. 131: For which of the following would the creation of a test plan be useful?

A. To teach employees how their applications should work.
B. To check whether the operating system is suitable for the intended use.
C. To facilitate process improvement for future upgrade projects.
D. To enable the business to understand their required contributions in making the upgrade a success.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
A. Test plans are not used to teach people how applications work
B. Checking suitability of an operating system for an application should be a design issue
C. Test plans may require information to be collated for future use, but this is not the best answer
D. This is the purpose of a test plan.

 

Q. 132: Some traders have been asked to become involved in test design and execution. They have sought clarification of what is meant by a test condition and a test case. Which of the following best describes the difference?

A. A test condition describes the feature to be tested, whilst a test case identifies the required inputs and expected outputs when testing the feature.

B. A test condition describes the system under test, whilst a test case describes the feature to be tested.

C. A test condition describes the feature to be tested, whilst a test case shows the order in which test steps will be taken.

D. A test condition describes the system under test, whilst a test case shows the order in which steps will be taken.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question tests the candidate’s ability to correctly identify the difference between a test item, a test condition, a test case and a test procedure.

 

Scenario:
You have been asked to generate a testing strategy for a corporate web-based application that will provide on-line access to a library of standards and procedures applicable to all of the organisation’s global activities. The organisation uses MS Office on standard PC architectures.

Q. 133: What will be the key testing concerns for the application domain described in Scenario 5? Choose one of the following options:

A. The need to ensure controlled access and the ability to handle large volumes of access requests.

B. Simplicity of updating the accessed documents and the ability to modify access rules.

C. Access via a wide variety of browsers and operating system platforms.

D. The ability to monitor all activity to ensure that attempts to gain unauthorised access are identified and to measure response times.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a straightforward question based on a short scenario; it requires the candidate to pick out the implications of the scenario. In the given context answer B is not particularly important because standards are unlikely to be particularly volatile, and even though procedures may change from time to time, this will be a fairly static library; option C would be appropriate for public use, but the corporation uses standard architectures and (probably) browsers; option D is again not particularly significant for this fairly static library that would be relatively unlikely to attract lots of potential hackers.

 

Scenario:
A company develops gaming applications. It creates games by buying off-the-shelf components, and adding its own functionality using its in-house software team.

A project has been created to upgrade an existing game, using a graphics engine supplied by an external vendor.

Q. 134: Which of the following would be carried out by the company?

a. Full functional testing of the new graphics engine.
b. Integration testing of the gaming application with the graphics engine.
c. Full functional testing of the game application.
d. Regression testing of the existing game functionality.

A. b and d
B. a and b.
C. c and d.
D. b and c.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is another question on the theme of selecting the best test approach, but for an application domain that is different from that tested in earlier questions. Here the candidate needs to recognise that the main decision is about testing a COTS application that represents a major change to the system as a whole. Option a would be inappropriate for COTS; option b is key because the engine is new; option c is unnecessary because changes have been minor; option d is required to check that changes have not been regressive.; We need to eliminate answers that contain a and/or c and select answers that include b and d.

 

Q. 135: Which of the following is a product risk?

A. The development team may be unfamiliar with the design of the new graphics engine.
B. The new version of the game may not sell as well as the previous version.
C. The new graphics engine may not integrate well with the game.
D. The new version is being produced to a tight deadline.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
Options A, B and D are not product risks.

 

Scenario:
You have been asked, as a tester with experience of testing user interfaces, to estimate the testing effort required for the user interface of an application with which you are unfamiliar. The user interface is based on an interface design that is being gradually adopted as a standard in the organisation. Records of the original design, development and testing activity are readily available. The estimate is required quickly.

Q. 136: Which of the following approaches to estimation would be most appropriate in this project?

A. Make an initial estimate based on your own experience, then check the numbers against the data for the original project.

B. Create a detailed work breakdown structure and make the micro estimates for each of the component activities, then check these with the original interface team.

C. Use Test Point Analysis or a similar formula-based method to construct an estimate.

D. Check with the designers of the new standard interface how much testing they are expecting to be done.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This is a question about estimating technique and approach. Answer A makes use of the experience of your user interface testing and also gets some value from the data related to the original development; although no detail is available the overall numbers will help to validate your estimate. Answers B and C are both wrong because they would need more detail than is available. Option D looks for input from the development team, but we do not know whether their expectations would match yours, so this would be a risky approach.

 

Q. 137: A review of the user interface specification has been scheduled by the development team and you have been invited to attend as a testing specialist. What kind of review would be most helpful for you in this situation?

Choose one of the following options:

A. A walkthrough because it would help me understand the interface better.
B. An inspection because it would result in a signed off specification for me to work from.
C. A technical review because it will identify all the problems with the specification.
D. A management review because it sets management criteria for the development.

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:
This question is included to demonstrate that higher K levels do not automatically generate ‘harder’ questions. Given that you are interested in estimating test effort, all of B, C and D are essentially irrelevant to you, while answer A offers the chance of finding out something useful.

 

Q. 138: Assume you are a test analyst working on a banking project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances of at least 500 euros for all supported credit cards. The correct list of supported credit cards is American Express, Visa, Japan Credit Bank, Eurocard, and MasterCard.

Among the various quality risk items you identify during risk analysis, you have the following, listed in order of perceived level of risk from most risky to least risky:

# Visa or MasterCard unable to obtain any cash advances

# American Express or Eurocard unable to obtain any cash advances

# Japan Credit Bank unable to obtain any cash advances

# Visa or MasterCard cash advances improperly limited

# American Express or Eurocard cash advances improperly limited

# Japan Credit Bank cash advances improperly limited

Assume that, in the following list, each test case requires exactly one hour of test analyst effort to run. Which of the following is a comma-separated, sequenced list of test cases that covers these risks in a way that is appropriate to the level of risk and that minimizes test effort?

A. Test minimum American Express and Eurocard advances; test minimum Visa and MasterCard advances; test minimum Japan Credit Bank advances.

B. Test minimum and maximum Visa and MasterCard advances; test minimum and maximum American Express and Eurocard advances; test minimum and maximum Japan Credit Bank advances.

C. Test minimum Visa and MasterCard advances; test minimum American Express and Eurocard advances; test minimum Japan Credit Bank advances; test maximum Visa and MasterCard advances; test maximum American Express and Eurocard advances; test maximum Japan Credit Bank advances.

D. Test maximum American Express and Eurocard advances; test maximum Visa and MasterCard advances; test maximum Japan Credit Bank advances.

 

Q. 139: Assume you are a test analyst working on a banking project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards.

When the user first inserts a valid credit card type, the system considers the user to be in the unauthenticated state. Prior to requesting a cash advance, though, the user must enter the authenticated state. The user authenticates by entering the proper personal identification number (PIN).

The system should be able to support up to 1,000 authentication transactions in process at one time. It should be able to complete authentication of a user within two seconds.

Which of the following test tool types is most likely to be useful for this testing?

A. Static analysis tools
B. Performance test tools
C. Dynamic analysis tools
D. Web test tools

 

Q. 140: Assume a project is following a sequential lifecycle model. Which of the following gives an example of applying a static analysis tool at the earliest possible point in the project?

A. Grammatical analysis of a requirements specification
B. Performance simulation of the network and database design
C. Security risk analysis of the application code and database design
D. Automated unit testing with J-Unit test frameworks

Answer

Q. 1  C
Q. 2  A
Q. 3  D
Q. 4  C
Q. 5  C
Q. 6  B
Q. 7  A
Q. 8  B
Q. 9  A
Q. 10  D
Q. 11  B
Q. 12  C
Q. 13  B
Q. 14  B
Q. 15  C
Q. 16  B
Q. 17  A
Q. 18  C
Q. 19  D
Q. 20  C
Q. 21  C
Q. 22  A
Q. 23  A
Q. 24  D
Q. 25  C
Q. 26  D
Q. 27  A
Q. 28  B
Q. 29  A
Q. 30  A
Q. 31  B
Q. 32  C
Q. 33  B
Q. 34  D
Q. 35  A
Q. 36  B
Q. 37  A
Q. 38  D
Q. 39  A
Q. 40  C
Q. 41  C
Q. 42  B
Q. 43  C
Q. 44  B
Q. 45  C
Q. 46  D
Q. 47  C
Q. 48  C
Q. 49  A
Q. 50  A
Q. 51  A
Q. 52  D
Q. 53  D
Q. 54  A
Q. 55  A
Q. 56  A
Q. 57  B
Q. 58  A
Q. 59  C
Q. 60  A
Q. 61  C
Q. 62  C
Q. 63  A
Q. 64  B
Q. 65  B
Q. 66  C
Q. 67  A
Q. 68  D
Q. 69  B
Q. 70  D
Q. 71  C
Q. 72  D
Q. 73  A
Q. 74  C
Q. 75  D
Q. 76  B
Q. 77  C
Q. 78  A
Q. 79  B
Q. 80  D
Q. 81  C
Q. 82  C
Q. 83  B
Q. 84  D
Q. 85  D
Q. 86  C
Q. 87  A
Q. 88  D
Q. 89  A
Q. 90  A
Q. 91  B
Q. 92  C
Q. 93  C
Q. 94  A
Q. 95  D
Q. 96  C
Q. 97  B
Q. 98  D
Q. 99  C
Q. 100  D
Q. 101  B
Q. 102  A
Q. 103  B
Q. 104  D
Q. 105  D
Q. 106  B
Q. 107  A
Q. 108  C
Q. 109  D
Q. 110  B
Q. 111  C
Q. 112  A
Q. 113  A
Q. 114  A
Q. 115  C
Q. 116  D
Q. 117  A
Q. 118  C
Q. 119  A
Q. 120  C
Q. 121  C
Q. 122  A
Q. 123  A
Q. 124  A
Q. 125  C
Q. 126  C
Q. 127  B
Q. 128  D
Q. 129  A
Q. 130  C
Q. 131  D
Q. 132  A
Q. 133  A
Q. 134  A
Q. 135  C
Q. 136  A
Q. 137  A
Q. 138  B
Q. 139  B
Q. 140  A

 

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